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this post was submitted on 01 Jan 2024
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You're conflating two different things. Law is political, and that's fine. Court rulings are not supposed to be political, though, they're supposed to be based solely on the rule of law. That's the only way to ensure the law applies equally to everyone, rich or poor alike.
I agree that voting/non-voting shares are bullshit, but so are shares held by anyone but the workers themselves (which would be a co-op).
Do you have any evidence that the law was misapplied or applied in a non standard way in this case? Other than china bad I mean.