Moved to !latin@piefed.social

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submitted 5 months ago by fxomt@lemm.ee to c/latin@lemm.ee

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[–] Sidyctism2@discuss.tchncs.de 8 points 5 months ago (2 children)

how did the I becone the Z and the Z became the I? why are half the letters mirrored frim archaic latin to roman?

[–] merde@sh.itjust.works 2 points 5 months ago (1 children)

i wasn't an i. It was a different sound represented by a sign that resembled i.

[–] topherclay@lemmy.world 1 points 5 months ago

Huh? This hasn't got anything to do with sounds, funny enough.