740

cross-posted from: https://lemmy.crimedad.work/post/12162

Why? Because apparently they need some more incentive to keep units occupied. Also, even though a property might be vacant, there's still imputed rental income there. Its owner is just receiving it in the form of enjoying the unit for himself instead of receiving an actual rent check from a tenant. That imputed rent ought to be taxed like any other income.

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[-] uralsolo@hexbear.net 36 points 1 year ago

Sure would be cool if the logic of eminent domain would be applied to housing that sits vacant for ages. If they're not using it just take it.

[-] alcoholicorn@hexbear.net 25 points 1 year ago

Well eminent domain says we have to pay you a fair rate for the house. The property was taxed $2000 and earned no income last year so here's a bill for $40,000.

this post was submitted on 24 Aug 2023
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