okmatewanker

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submitted 2 weeks ago by flamingos@feddit.uk to c/okmatewanker@feddit.uk

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[–] tetris11@feddit.uk 5 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

LOL no. The act of Union between England and Scotland was very much consensual and the English didn’t oppress the Scottish.

The wars of scottish independence are pretty entrenched in cultural psyche, and Thatcher reignited tensions drastically in the 80s.

Wales was not a country until recent times. It was only internationally defined as such in 2011. It was always a principality of England.

They were not allowed to express their culture until the monarchy showed support, of course there's resentment

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk -2 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

The wars for Scottish independence were centuries before the act of union

[–] tetris11@feddit.uk 1 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago) (1 children)

As were any sense of the anglo-saxon heritage that english people claim, after the empire spread across the globe and imported its varied subjects

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

You don't need to be Anglo Saxon to be English

[–] tetris11@feddit.uk 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

it sure feels like it when I see that flag being waved

[–] Flax_vert@feddit.uk 1 points 2 weeks ago

Then wave it back