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Now I understand US a bit more
(lemmygrad.ml)
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What does this even mean? It's different because it's the centre but it's the same anyway?
The claim was that the "psychosis" of the US was because it was capitalist and that everywhere else was therefore the same. I've pointed out that there is nowhere quantitatively similar in a variety of areas. To that you say, well it's because it's the centre.
It seems to be that I'm the only one thinking dialectically here. It we want to think dialectically, we need to know what things like "the centre of the capitalist class" is. If England for example was once it, then why didn't it exhibit the same behaviour?
And therefore...?
Denying the unique "psychosis" (not my word) of the US and equivalising it with every other capitalist states can be seen as defending it.