You are assuming that a country cannot improve its growth because of past and its success it determined purely by past events

Nothing like that. I'm saying that industrialization is a gradual and long process, and by pure logic, some countries which started to industrialize 100+ years before others, had the advantage.

By the way, this “theory” completely falls apart when you look at Germany. Before they were one state, then divided and after communism fell, they re-united. After the berlin wall fell, eastern part was in a far worse condition.

Far-worse condition by which metric? Sure, it was less developed industrially and economically (see my point about not participating in colonialism, which you don't seem to care about), but there was no unemployment and there was guaranteed housing for everyone. There were fewer, and worse quality, consumer goods, but is that how you determine the success of a system?

Regarding colonialism and unequal exchange, you don't seem to understand how important an effect it has. Importing cheap raw materials and exporting high added-value manufactured goods, is the most profitable thing you can do, but it implies unequal exchange, which drains the resources and labour of poorer countries and exploits them. If you're interested at all in the development of the economies of countries, you really should look into, and try to understand, the concept of unequal exchange. Otherwise, it's like saying "wow Rome was so powerful in 200BC" while ignoring that like half the workforce were literal slaves.