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S=sum of (-1)^n/n from 1 to infty

For why I named the post as so, here's why

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[-] quilan@lemmy.world 2 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

There closest I was able to do on the fly was to show that the ::: pairwise sum has an integral of -ln(2)/2 ::: but that was pretty hand wavy. I'll have to check how it's actually done.

this post was submitted on 02 Jun 2024
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