so when a man calls another man a name they have committed violence?
this post was submitted on 09 Jun 2025
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The linked report goes into more detail about what they consider violence and how the answers were collected https://aifs.gov.au/sites/default/files/2025-05/Insights-Report-IPV-Chapter-1.pdf
Here's one (of many) relevant sections (emphasis added):
To understand the use of intimate partner violence, respondents were presented with a series of questions following the prompt, ‘As an adult, how have you behaved towards a past or present partner?’, and asked to respond either ‘yes’ or ‘no’. Respondents were also able to skip answering these questions. The questions included:
- Have you ever behaved in a manner that has made a partner feel frightened or anxious? (emotional- type abuse) 1
- Have you ever hit, slapped, kicked or otherwise physically hurt a partner when you were angry? (physical violence)
- Have you ever forced a partner to have sex or made them engage in any sexual activity they did not want? (sexual abuse) 2
Similarly, to measure men’s experience of intimate partner violence, respondents were presented with a series of questions following the prompt, ‘As an adult, have you ever experienced any of the following?’, and asked to respond either ‘yes’ or ‘no’. Respondents were also able to skip answering these questions. The questions included:
- Have you ever felt frightened or anxious because of the behaviour of a partner? (emotional-type abuse).
- Have you ever been hit, slapped, kicked or otherwise physically hurt by a partner when they were angry? (physical violence).
- Has a partner ever forced you to have sex or made you engage in any sexual activity you did not want? (sexual abuse).
My partner came home later than expected and I felt anxious. By this definition, my partner was committing intimate partner violence? What?
No. That is one question they ask. It is not how they define intimate partner violence.
The definition they use is right there in the report:
What is intimate partner violence? In this research, we adopt the definition of intimate partner violence set out in the National Plan as:
Any behaviour within an intimate relationship (including current or past marriages, domestic partnerships or dates) that causes physical, sexual or psychological harm ... Intimate partner violence can occur outside of a domestic setting, such as in public, and between 2 people that do not live together. (DSS, 2022, p 37)
So if the behaviour does not (my emphasis) “cause physical, sexual or psychological harm”, it does not match their definition of intimate partner violence.
No. That is one question they ask. It is not how they define intimate partner violence.
It's not how they define it in the report but it sure sounds like if you answered yes to that one question they went ahead and classed you as using/experiencing intimate partner violence anyway. It's right there in the report:
To understand the use of intimate partner violence, respondents were presented with a series of questions following the prompt, ‘As an adult, how have you behaved towards a past or present partner?’, and asked to respond either ‘yes’ or ‘no’. Respondents were also able to skip answering these questions. The questions included:
- Have you ever behaved in a manner that has made a partner feel frightened or anxious? (emotional- type abuse)
Similarly, men were coded as ever having used or experienced forms of intimate partner violence by 2022 if they had responded ‘yes’ to any of the types of violence at either the 2013–14 survey or the 2022 survey.
Looking at these comments minimising domestic abuse and sheesh... am I glad I'm not a heterosexual.