this post was submitted on 06 Apr 2025
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[–] balderdash9@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (1 children)

I'm leaving some philosophical details out for the sake of space. Kant thought that the moral law is a duty that is imposed upon the self by reason. But we cannot place a duty on ourselves that is logically inconsistent. Since the moral law should be the same for everyone, if everyone doing something leads to a logical contradiction, then that must not be an action prescribable to ourselves by reason.

The notion that we (morally) ought to do something implies that we could do it; conversely, if we could not do the action, then this implies that we are not morally obligated to do it.

[–] Olgratin_Magmatoe@slrpnk.net 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Kant thought that the moral law is a duty that is imposed upon the self by reason.

So how do you evidence that this value is objective?

[–] balderdash9@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

I'm not sure I understand your question

[–] Olgratin_Magmatoe@slrpnk.net 1 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago) (1 children)

Kant thought that the moral law is a duty that is imposed upon the self by reason.

What is the evidence that this thought is true? How do you objectively prove this?

[–] balderdash9@lemmy.zip 1 points 1 week ago (1 children)

Ah I see. In a nutshell, if morality were dictated to rational agents through an external source, we could not be sure of its objectivity (i.e., universal and necessary validity). Moreover, the notion of an external source that dictates morality conflicts with our being free moral agents. Hence we must legislate ourselves through our own faculty of reason such that the moral law holds objectively for rational agents such as us. From this the Categorical Imperative, a procedure for determining moral worth through logical consistency, is supposed to follow.

He gives different philosophical arguments for these positions in The Groundwork to the Metaphysics of Morals and The Critique of Practical Reason. Unlike science, where we can appreciate the result without combing through the evidence, the philosophical arguments have to be understood in their entirety to see the salience of the conclusion. I'm willing to give a sense of the view (see the foregoing), but I'd rather not recapitulate the entire work. If you're interested, I would read the following entry page on the issue. You might find Kant's arguments convincing: https://plato.stanford.edu/entries/kant-moral/

[–] Olgratin_Magmatoe@slrpnk.net 2 points 1 week ago* (last edited 1 week ago)

if morality were dictated to rational agents through an external source, we could not be sure of its objectivity (i.e., universal and necessary validity). Moreover, the notion of an external source that dictates morality conflicts with our being free moral agents. Hence we must legislate ourselves through our own faculty of reason such that the moral law holds objectively for rational agents such as us.

I agree with everything here until the "must" of the last sentence, as it seems to be based on the implication that said free agents care. There are people who do not care for their own wellbeing, or the wellbeing of others. On a subjective basis, they lack the values that objective reasoning would be built on.

To them that "must" is meaningless. Or worse, they view statements such as that as being dictated to them from an external source.

On top of that, we aren't completely rational, or able to make completely rational conclusions at all times. We can make attempts, sure. But we have biases, we fall into fallacies without realizing, and like I said some of us just don't care.

Morality can't be objective if we can't be objective.

but I’d rather not recapitulate the entire work. If you’re interested, I would read the following entry page on the issue.

I understand not wanting to do that, so all good.

Though. I'm more interested in a discussion than anything else.