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submitted 11 months ago by Grayox@lemmy.ml to c/microblogmemes@lemmy.world
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[-] BreadstickNinja@lemmy.world 9 points 11 months ago* (last edited 11 months ago)

Is this a definition common in a specific country outside the U.S.? I see this claim in multiple places in the thread, but that's not how it has been historically defined in the U.S. or in France where the term originated. Middle class in the original context evolved out of the mercantile class that traded goods in cities - neither aristocrat nor serf - during the middle ages. That original definition had nothing to do with investments.

[-] deo@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 11 months ago

Does it not? Maybe the definition of investments has expanded to include more abstract things like stock in a company, but still a merchant needs to invest in goods that they then sell. Which now that i think about it is also called stock...

this post was submitted on 22 Jan 2024
1365 points (97.9% liked)

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