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submitted 4 months ago by stabby_cicada@slrpnk.net to c/memes@slrpnk.net
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[-] poVoq@slrpnk.net 2 points 4 months ago* (last edited 4 months ago)

Yes, but when taking regional inequality in account, the picture becomes clearer. There are regions in both China and India where the per capital consumption is nearly as bad as in the US.

[-] idiomaddict@feddit.de 3 points 4 months ago

Certainly, but those are the wealthy regions, which don’t really fit into the “developing” stage anymore imo. They’re more developed than the (mainland) UK was when the terminology became common.

[-] poVoq@slrpnk.net 2 points 4 months ago

Yes, but in a hypothetical world where Mexico was part of the US, the per capital consumption of the US would also look much better on paper.

[-] idiomaddict@feddit.de 3 points 4 months ago

I think we agree, lol. Richer areas use more resources and poorer areas use fewer. It’s not 1:1, but it’s pretty close.

this post was submitted on 03 Jul 2024
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