Thank you for the explanation. To me it still seems to be a case of expanding the terminology beyond it's original meaning given the context. The situation today is more of a country occupying part of another country while laying siege on another part of the said country. If this can be referred to as apartheid I don't see why it can't be used on most invasions and occupational wars in human history. Furthermore, I'm too young know what people thinks of South Africa back then, but as far as I can remember South Africa has been seen as a single unit in my lifetime. Hence, referring to Israel as an apartheid state in my mind has the implication of Israel somehow has the right and responsibility of ruling over Palestinian territory. Treating the citizens of an occupied country poorly is bad but shouldn't automatically qualify as apartheid, even though I agree there are some resemblance in practice.

The case with Israel proper is more interesting because you can make the case that there are some apartheid elements such as the fact only Jews enjoys the right to automatically become Israeli citizens which isn't available to other ethnic groups that currently resides in Israel. However to my knowledge Israel proper isn't what most people think of when they make the case that Israel is an apartheid state, even tho imo it makes a more compelling case per definition.