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this post was submitted on 16 Feb 2024
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What does he mean with this? Is he claiming that AIDS isn't caused by the HIV virus, or is he claiming that poppers (the chemical amyl nitrate) when consumed by a human causes the spontaneous creation of the HIV virus inside the person?
Neither of those makes sense.
How does he explain heterosexuals dying of AIDS?
They caught "the gay"
Splash damage.
Gay agenda obviously. Or they were secretly trans. Something like that anyway.
Yeah, Weinstein is Jewish. Doesn't need to be a NAZI to be a bigoted idiot.
https://jewishjournal.com/commentary/columnist/237420/phenomenon-left-right/
I think he's saying that last time he got high off poppers he had unprotected butt sex with a known infected partner.
It's the only logical conclusion.
The most generous interpretation is he's saying drugs suppress the immune system so drug use causes AIDS. This would be fairly falsifiable if we had data showing non drug users also develop AIDS and... Oh wait we have fuck loads of evidence showing that and Weinstein proves himself an idiot. Again.
Please, can you point to a single person that's ever got aids without doing poppers?
Ha see I knew you couldn't, that's literally hundreds of millions of people you're pointing at and I said a single person, I win again lefty!!!
Haven't listened. Haven't read.
AIDS is the Acquired ImmunoDeficiency Syndrome.
The most charitable take is he's saying HIV isn't the only way to acquire it.
Personally, I gave a lot of charity to rogan between 2014 & 2020. I don't have any charity left for either of those racist xenophobic cucks